This Portion of Computer Networking contains Computer Networking Data-Link Layer Wired Networks MCQs (Multiple Choice Questions and Answers).

This Section covers below lists of topics.

1. INTRODUCTION
• Nodes and Links
• Two Types of Links
• Two Sublayers

2. DATA LINK CONTROL (DLC)
• Framing
• Flow and Error Control
• Error Detection and Correction
• Two DLC Protocols

3. MULTIPLE ACCESS PROTOCOLS
• Random Access
• Controlled Access
• Channelization

4. LINK-LAYER ADDRESSING

5. WIRED LANS: ETHERNET PROTOCOL
• IEEE Project 802
• Standard Ethernet
• Fast Ethernet (100 Mbps)
• Gigabit Ethernet
• 10-Gigabit Ethernet
• Virtual LANs

6. OTHER WIRED NETWORKS
• Point-to-Point Networks
• SONET
• Switched Network: ATM

7. CONNECTING DEVICES
• Repeaters or Hubs
• Link-Layer Switches
• Routers

PRACTICE IT NOW TO SHARPEN YOUR CONCEPT AND KNOWLEDGE

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  • end-to-end
  • node-to-node
  • process-to-process
  • None of the choices are correct

2. Which of the following best describes a single-bit error?

  • A single bit is inverted.
  • A single bit per transmission is inverted.
  • A single bit per data unit is inverted.
  • All of the choices are correct

3. Which error detection method uses one's complement arithmetic?

  • Simple parity check
  • Checksum
  • Two-dimensional parity check
  • CRC

4. Which error detection method consists of just one redundant bit per data unit?

  • Two-dimensional parity check
  • CRC
  • Simple parity check
  • Checksum

5. Which error detection method involves polynomials?

  • CRC
  • Simple parity check
  • Two-dimensional parity check
  • Checksum

6. If the ASCII character G is sent and the character D is received, what type of error is this?

  • Single-bit
  • Multiple-bit
  • Burst
  • Recoverable

7. If the ASCII character H is sent and the character L is received, what type of error is this?

  • Burst
  • Recoverable
  • Single-bit
  • Multiple-bit

8. In cyclic redundancy checking, what forms the check bits?

  • The remainder
  • The divisor
  • The quotient
  • The dividend

9. In CRC, if the dataword is 111111, the divisor 1010, and the remainder 110, what is the codeword at the receiver?

  • 111111011
  • 1010110
  • 111111110
  • 110111111

10. In CRC, if the dataword is 111111 and the divisor 1010, what is the dividend at the sender?

  • 1111110000
  • 111111000
  • 111111
  • 1111111010

11. At the CRC generator, _______ is (are) added to the dataword after the division process to create the codeword.

  • 0s
  • 1s
  • the remainder
  • the divisor

12. The sum of the checksum and data at the receiver is _______ if no error is detected.

  • – 0
  • + 0
  • the complement of the checksum
  • the complement of the dataword

13. In CRC, the quotient at the sender _______.

  • becomes the dividend at the receiver
  • becomes the divisor at the receiver
  • is the remainder
  • is discarded

14. At the CRC checker, _______ means that the dataword is damaged.

  • a string of alternating 1s and 0s
  • a nonzero remainder
  • a string of 0s
  • None of the choices are correct

15. HDLC is an acronym for _______.

  • High-Duplex Line Communication
  • Half-Duplex Link Combination
  • High-Level Data Link Control
  • Host Double-Level Circuit

16. The shortest frame in HDLC protocol is usually the _______ frame.

  • information
  • management
  • supervisory
  • none of the choices are correct

17. The address field of a frame in HDLC protocol contains the address of the _______ station.

  • primary
  • secondary
  • tertiary
  • primary or secondary

18. The HDLC _______ field defines the beginning and end of a frame.

  • control
  • flag
  • FCS
  • None of the choices are correct

19. What is present in all HDLC control fields?

  • N(R)
  • N(S)
  • code bits
  • P/F bit

20. According to the PPP transition phases diagram, options are negotiated in the _______ state.

  • Networking
  • Terminating
  • Establishing
  • Authenticating

21. According to the PPP transition phases diagram, verification of user identification occurs in the _______ state.

  • Networking
  • Terminating
  • Establishing
  • Authenticating

22. In the PPP frame, the _______ field defines the contents of the data field.

  • FCS
  • flag
  • control
  • protocol

23. In the PPP frame, the _______ field is similar to that of the U-frame in HDLC.

  • flag
  • protocol
  • FCS
  • control

24. In the PPP frame, the _______ field has a value of 11111111 to indicate the broadcast address of HDLC.

  • protocol
  • address
  • control
  • FCS

25. In PPP, what is the purpose of LCP packets?

  • Configuration
  • Termination
  • Option negotiation
  • All of the choices are correct

26. In the PPP frame, the _______ field is for error control.

  • FCS
  • flag
  • control
  • protocol

27. For CHAP authentication, the user takes the system's _______ and its own _______ to create a result that is then sent to the system.

  • authentication identification; password
  • password; authentication identification
  • challenge value; password
  • password; challenge value

28. In the _______ random-access method collision is avoided.

  • CSMA/CD
  • CSMA/CA
  • ALOHA
  • token-passing

29. In the 1-persistent approach, when a station finds an idle line, it _______.

  • sends immediately
  • waits 0.1 s before sending
  • waits 1 s before sending
  • waits a time equal to (1 - p) seconds before sending

30. _______ requires one primary station and one or more secondary stations.

  • token ring
  • reservation
  • polling
  • CSMA

31. In the p-persistent approach, when a station finds an idle line, it _______.

  • sends immediately
  • waits 1 s before sending
  • sends with probability 1 - p
  • sends with probability p

32. The 1-persistent approach can be considered a special case of the p-persistent approach with p equal to _______.

  • 1.0
  • 2.0
  • 0.1
  • 0.5

33. In the reservation access method, if there are 10 stations on a network, then there are _______ reservation minislots in the reservation frame.

  • 10
  • 11
  • 5
  • 9

34. _______ is a controlled-access protocol.

  • FDMA
  • TDMA
  • CSMA
  • Reservation

35. _______ is (are) a channelization protocol.

  • FDMA
  • TDMA
  • CDMA
  • All the choices are correct.

36. In the _______ random-access method, stations do not sense the medium.

  • CSMA/CA
  • ALOHA
  • CSMA/CD
  • Ethernet

37. A ________ is a local address. Its jurisdiction is over a local network.

  • link-layer address
  • logical address
  • port number
  • None of the choices are correct

38. If the sender is a host and wants to send a packet to another host on the same network, the logical address that must be mapped to a physical address is ______.

  • the destination IP address in the datagram header
  • the IP address of the router found in the routing table
  • the source IP address
  • None of the choices are correct

39. If the sender is a host and wants to send a packet to another host on another network, the logical address that must be mapped to a physical address is ______.

  • the destination IP address in the datagram header
  • the IP address of the router found in the routing table
  • the source IP address
  • None of the choices are correct

40. The sender is a router that has received a datagram destined for a host on another network. The logical address that must be mapped to a physical address is ______.

  • the destination IP address in the datagram header
  • the IP address of the router found in the routing table
  • the source IP address
  • None of the choices are correct

41. The sender is a router that has received a datagram destined for a host in the same network. The logical address that must be mapped to a physical address is ______.

  • the destination IP address in the datagram header
  • the IP address of the router found in the routing table
  • source IP address
  • None of the choices are correct

42. An ARP reply is normally _______.

  • broadcast
  • multicast
  • unicast
  • None of the choices are correct

43. An ARP request is normally _______.

  • broadcast
  • multicast
  • unicast
  • None of the choices are correct

44. Given the Ethernet address 01011010 00010001 01010101 00011000 10101010 00001111 in binary, what is the address in hexadecimal notation?

  • 5A:88:AA:18:55:F0
  • 5A:81:BA:81:AA:0F
  • 5A:18:5A:18:55:0F
  • 5A:11:55:18:AA:0F

45. If an Ethernet destination address is 07:01:02:03:04:05, then this is a ______ address.

  • unicast
  • multicast
  • broadcast
  • either multicast or broadcast

46. If an Ethernet destination address is 08:07:06:05:44:33, then this is a ______ address.

  • unicast
  • multicast
  • broadcast
  • either multicast or broadcast

47. Which of the following could not be an Ethernet multicast destination address?

  • 43:7B:6C:DE:10:00
  • 44:AA:C1:23:45:32
  • 46:56:21:1A:DE:F4
  • 48:32:21:21:4D:34

48. Which of the following could not be an Ethernet unicast destination address?

  • B7:7B:6C:DE:10:00
  • 7B:AA:C1:23:45:32
  • 7C:56:21:1A:DE:F4
  • 83:32:21:21:4D:34

49. The _______ layer of Ethernet consists of the LLC sublayer and the MAC sublayer.

  • data link
  • physical
  • network
  • None of the choices are correct.

50. The _____ sublayer is responsible for the operation of the CSMA/CD access method and framing.

  • LLC
  • MII
  • MAC
  • None of the choices are correct,

51. Each station on an Ethernet network has a unique _______ address imprinted on its network interface card (NIC).

  • 16-bit
  • 32-bit
  • 64-bit
  • None of the choices are correct.

52. The minimum frame length for Ethernet is _______ bytes.

  • 32
  • 80
  • 128
  • None of the choices are correct

53. Fast Ethernet has a data rate of ________ Mbps.

  • 10
  • 100
  • 1000
  • 10,000

54. In _________, autonegotiation allows two devices to negotiate the mode or data rate of operation.

  • Standard
  • Fast Ethernet
  • Gigabit Ethernet
  • Ten-Gigabit Ethernet

55. Gigabit Ethernet has a data rate of ________ Mbps.

  • 10
  • 100
  • 1000
  • 10,000

56. In Ethernet addressing, if the least significant bit of the first byte is 0, the address is _________.

  • unicast
  • multicast
  • broadcast
  • None of the choices are correct.

57. In Ethernet addressing, if the least significant bit of the first byte is 1, the address is _________.

  • unicast
  • multicast
  • broadcast
  • None of the choices are correct.

58. In Ethernet addressing, if all the bits are 1s, the address is _________.

  • unicast
  • multicast
  • broadcast
  • None of the choices are correct.

59. In the Ethernet, the _______ field is actually added at the physical layer and is not (formally) part of the frame.

  • CRC
  • preamble
  • address
  • SFD

60. In the Ethernet frame, the _______ field contains error detection information.

  • CRC
  • preamble
  • address
  • SFD

61. A VLAN as a local area network configured by_____________.

  • software
  • physical wiring
  • software or physical wiring
  • None of the choices are correct.

62. The largest portion of the bandwidth for ADSL carries _______.

  • voice communication
  • upstream data
  • downstream data
  • control data

63. Another name for the cable TV office is the _______.

  • splitter
  • fiber node
  • combiner
  • head end

64. A traditional cable TV network transmits signals ______.

  • upstream
  • downstream
  • upstream and downstream
  • None of the choices are correct.

65. The original telephone network, which is referred to as the plain old telephone system (POTS), was a (an) ________ system.

  • digital
  • analog
  • digital as well as analog
  • None of the choices are correct.

66. The traditional cable TV system used ________ cable end to end.

  • twisted-pair
  • coaxial
  • fiber-optic
  • None of the choices are correct.

67. The second generation of cable networks is called a(n) _________ network.

  • HFC
  • HCF
  • CFH
  • None of the choices are correct.

68. The HFC network uses _______ cable.

  • twisted-pair
  • coaxial
  • fiber-optic
  • a combination of coaxial and fiber-optic

69. To use a cable network for data transmission, we need two key devices: a ______ and a _________

  • CM; CMS
  • CT; CMTS
  • CM; CMTS
  • None of the choices are correct.

70. A (An) ______ signal is the corresponding optical signals of an electrical signal level STS-n.

  • OC-n
  • TDM-n
  • FDM-n
  • None of the choices are correct.

71. SONET uses _______ TDM multiplexing.

  • asynchronous
  • synchronous
  • statistical
  • None of the choices are correct.

72. A SONET system can use _________.

  • STS multiplexers
  • regenerators
  • add/drop multiplexers
  • All of the choices are correct.

73. SONET sends ________ frames per second

  • 1000
  • 2000
  • 4000
  • 8000

74. In SONET, a ________ is a repeater.

  • regenerator
  • ADM
  • STS multiplexer/demultiplexer
  • None of the choices are correct.

75. In SONET, __________ allow insertion and extraction of signals.

  • regenerators
  • ADMs
  • STS multiplexer/demultiplexers
  • none of the choices are correct

76. In SONET, for each byte, the bits are transmitted ____________.

  • from least significant to the most significant
  • from most significant to the least significant
  • two at a time
  • three at a time

77. ________ is the cell relay protocol designed by the corresponding Forum and adopted by the ITU-T.

  • SONET
  • ADM
  • ATM
  • None of the choices are correct.

78. The ATM standard defines ______ layers.

  • two
  • three
  • four
  • five

79. An ATM data unit is a cell composed of ______ bytes.

  • 40
  • 50
  • 52
  • 53

80. In ATM, a(n) ______ is the interface between a user and an ATM switch.

  • UNI
  • NNI
  • NUI
  • None of the choices are correct.

81. In ATM, a(n) _________ is the interface between two ATM switches.

  • UNI
  • NNI
  • NUI
  • None of the choices are correct.

82. In ATM, the _______ layer accepts transmissions from upper-layer services and maps them into cells.

  • physical
  • ATM
  • AAL
  • None of the choices are correct.

83. In ATM, the ______ layer provides routing, traffic management, switching, and multiplexing services.

  • physical
  • ATM
  • AAL
  • None of the choices are correct.

84. A repeater is a connecting device that operates in the _______ layer(s).

  • physical
  • physical and data link
  • data link and network
  • physical, data link and network
  • physical
  • physical and data link
  • data link and network
  • physical, data link and network

86. A router is a connecting device that that operates in the _______ layer(s).

  • physical
  • physical and data link
  • data link and network
  • physical, data link and network

87. A _________ has no filtering capability.

  • repeater
  • link-layer switch
  • router
  • None of the choices are correct.

88. A three-layer switch is a __________.

  • repeater
  • link-layer switch
  • router
  • None of the choices are correct.
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